hi my boyfriend and I are looking at buying a house. only problem is that he owns a house already its listed for 249000 and it he owes 233000 but it is a free down mortgage so between penilties and realtor fees he's barely breaking even. we talked to a bank about porting his mortgage over to a new one to avoid penilties. I guess the questain here is if we port would we have to pay a down payment on the whole amount or would it just be the owing between the new house and old one. also can a bank charge those penilties if we port?
Beverly Hills,CA | Feb 1st 2012
by lil_k3_...
Answer
by ralph@a...
by Crestic...
by william
by lbennett
by TeamBes...
by BertCar...
The concept of "Porting" a loan from one property to another, or substituting collateral has been attempted by at least one credit union, that I am aware of, but that was over 10 years. If his loan is either a government insured/guaranteed loan like FHA or VA, or if the loan is a conforming Fannie or Freddie loan, it is unlikely the loan includes this feature. The loan documents will tell you for sure. If the documents do include such a provision then more than likely only the current bank will be able to assist you in determining what the requirements are. Otherwise, you are looking at obtaining a new loan for the new property. ~ Bert Carpenter, The LoansA2z team of NOVA Home Loans ~ NMLS 40586 ~ www.LoansA2z.com Feb 1st 2012
by wbarnes
Have you got a buyer yet for the $249,000 house? Does this price make it a short sale? Have you considered allowing a buyer to assume the loan through a land trust? (More info on that at http://fencetalk.com/) There is a company in CA which specializes in this form of transaction.Wayne BarnesBroker AssociateColdwell Banker SelectTulsa, OK www.come2ok.com Feb 1st 2012 |
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